No there is not. Or no there's not. :) Isn't is a contraction of "is not". He's/she's is a contraction of "she is/he is". They are just different ways of writing the same sentence.
Yahoo: Shia LaBeouf 'just not into' rehab amid New Orleans woes, including second arrest
Shia LaBeouf 'just not into' rehab amid New Orleans woes, including second arrest
Yes and no. You do use "he's" for "he is" and "he has". You do use "he's got something" for "he has got something." You do not use "he's something" for "he has something." [Note that according to @Optimal Cynic this is allowed in some parts of the world] Therefore the first two sentences you proposed are correct: He's angry. He's been angry. But the third one is incorrect. You cannot shorten ...
colloquialisms - He's good people. Just him. The one guy - English ...
Short answer Either sentence is fine. The notional Subject of the auxiliary verb DO is the plural noun phrase the people. However, in English the word one which occurs earlier in the larger noun phrase can optionally override the expected subject-verb agreement in the relative clause causing a singular verb form. Full answer He is [one of the few people who doesn't eat lunch]. He is [one of ...
For the possessive pronouns his and her, Wiktionary gives the Proto-Germanic forms as *hes and *hezōz respectively. The "objective" pronouns him and her are etymologically derived from dative-case forms, which Wiktionary gives as *himmai and *hezōi in Proto-Germanic.